Question: Do manufactured homes appreciate in value or depreciate? Are there any cases in which manufactured housing would appreciate in value, and if so why?

Answer: Manufactured homes, like real estate in general, can be seen as a commodity with values which can rise and fall in response to a variety of factors. In the particular case of mobile homes, one type of manufactured housing, an important issue concerns whether we are talking about just the home itself or the home and the land on which it is located.

"The stereotypes of manufactured housing are built upon very real differences in appreciation experienced by the people who own them, " says Consumers Union in a 44-page report entitled Manufactured Housing Appreciation: Stereotypes and Data. "The large proportion of manufactured homes in rental parks contributes greatly to the lower appreciation experienced by manufactured home owners as a whole, as land ownership is an important driver of appreciation. High variation in the individual appreciation rates of manufactured homes also causes a higher proportion of manufactured homes, even packaged with land, to lose value over time."

"Even so," the report continues, "average appreciation rates of manufactured homes packaged with owned land are statistically in line with the site built market, and there are few inherent reasons that a home built in a factory should perform differently than one built on site. Our analysis suggests that consumers can make decisions which can improve the appreciation of a manufactured home. Land ownership, location, purchase price and maintenance expenditures are among the factors that predict appreciation, and should be considered when attempting to increase appreciation in a particular unit."

A good discussion of the pros and cons associated with manufactured housing can be found at http://www.consumersunion.org/other/mh/tips.htm.

Question: My father gave me a deed to a piece of property in 1965. This lot was a piece of property which he used and maintained since the early 1900's. In 1987 the owner of an adjoining property had a survey of his property which when completed resulted in an overlap of 90% of my property. I was never notified of this discrepancy. This neighbor sold his property to a new owner but stated that I owned some adjoining property.

This infringement does not qualify as an "Adverse Possession. I have paid taxes each year since 1965. Do I need to prove that my father (Deceased) had title to this property? I do not want the expense of going to court to prove that this land is mine. What are my options? I will contact the present owner about a correction of this matter but do not expect him to give up what he thinks belongs to him.

Answer: You maintain that the 1987 survey was wrong, that there is no adverse possession through use or other means and that the new owner thinks the property is his.

When the new owner bought the property did he also get a survey? Does he have title insurance?

Go to the local land records office and search the history of your property and the adjoining property. See if the records show changed boundaries over time or any title transfers that you cannot explain. If you have evidence that the disputed property is yours, then the new owner will at least want to have his title insurance company review the matter. If there is a disagreement you should retain an attorney to defend your position.

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